## PHYSICS

 Choose the Correct Answer Q1 At x = 3, value of is 1 1 2 −1 3 0 4 Infinite
 Q2 If y = 9 − (x − 3)2, then maximum value of y is 1 3 2 9 3 0 4 −3
 Q3 The coordinate of a particle moving in xy plane vary with time as , . The locus of the particle is 1 Parabola 2 Circle 3 Straight line 4 Ellipse
 Q4 If the value of , then the value of cos(−θ) is equal to 1 2 3 4
 Q5 If the equation represents the graph between and y as shown in figure, then the graph between x and y2 is 1 Parabola towards +x axis 2 Parabola towards −x axis 3 Circle 4 Straight line
 Q6 is equal to 1 2x + cosx 2 x2 − (cos x) 3 4 2x − cosx
 Q7 When energy E, velocity V and time T are selected as base quantities, the dimension of force per unit length will be 1 [EV−2T−2] 2 [EVT] 3 [EV2T2] 4 [E2VT−2]
 Q8 The value of sin(240°) is 1 2 3 4 −1
 Q9 The dimensions of in the equation where E is energy, x is the distance and t is time, are 1 [M−1L−3T2] 2 [ML3T−2] 3 [M−1L3T−1] 4 [M−1L−3T4]
 Q10 Sides PQ and RS start to increase with time t as PQ = Kt2 where K is 2 ms−2. The area of rectangle at t = 3 s, varies with time at a rate of 1 6 m2s−1 2 2 m2s−1 3 4 m2s−1 4 12 m2s−1
 Q11 Which of the following is not a fundamental law of nature? 1 Law of conservation of energy 2 Law of conservation of linear momentum 3 Law of conservation of mass 4 Law of conservation of charge
 Q12 The value of is 1 0.998 2 0.99 3 0.098 4 0.09
 Q13 Which of the following statements is not true regarding fundamental forces? 1 Gravitational force is weaker than weak nuclear force 2 Force between nucleons is strong nuclear force 3 Electromagnetic force is short range force 4 Strong nuclear force is about 100 times stronger than electromagnetic force
 Q14 is equal to 1 2 3 4
 Q15 , where t represents time and x is position. Choose the correct statement 1 The dimension of x is same as c 2 The dimension of x is same as b 3 The dimension of t is same as b 4 The dimension of t is same as c
 Q16 Which of the following is the most precise device for measuring length? 1 A vernier calipers with 10 divisions on vernier scale 2 A screw gauge of pitch 1 mm and 100 divisions on the circular scale 3 A metre scale 4 All of the above are equally precise
 Q17 If R, C and L represent resistance, capacitance and inductance then which of the following term is dimensionless? 1 2 3 4
 Q18 In a new system of unit, unit of mass is 10 kg, unit of length is 100 m, unit of time is 1 minute. Then magnitude of 1 N force in new system of units will be 1 36 2 60 3 3.6 4 0.06
 Q19 The potential energy of a particle varies with distance x from a fixed origin as . Which of the following operations is not defined? 1 A.B 2 A + B 3 4 A2B
 Q20 Choose the incorrect statement 1 0.0037218 has five significant figure 2 4.3500 has three significant figure 3 1560 has three significant figure 4 7.650 has four significant figure
 Q21 If x = 2.220 cm and y = 2.1 cm, then x − y = 1 0.120 cm 2 0.12 cm 3 0.1 cm 4 1.2 × 10−1 cm
 Q22 If percentage error in area of cube is 4, then the percentage error in volume of cube will be 1 6 2 3 8 4 4.4
 Q23 Dimensional formula of a physical quantity is [M−1L3T−2]. The error in measuring quantities M, L and T respectively are 1%, 2% and 3%. The maximum percentage error that occurs in measuring the quantity is 1 1% 2 13% 3 10% 4 7%
 Q24 The dimensions of the ratio of angular momentum to linear momentum is 1 [M0LT0] 2 [MLT−1] 3 [ML2T−1] 4 [M−1L−1T−1]
 Q25 Select the incorrect statement 1 A physically correct relation must be dimensionally correct 2 Quantities which have same dimensions may have same units 3 relation can be deduced by using dimensional analysis 4 Dimension of torque is same as work
Q26 Period of oscillation of simple pendulum is 2 s determined by measuring the time for 100 oscillations using a clock of 0.1 s resolution. What is the percentage error in the determined value of time period?

0.1%

0.5%

5%

0.05%
 Q27 A ball is released from certain height h reaches ground in time T. Where will it be from the ground at time ? 1 2 3 4
 Q28 If a particle is thrown with velocity more than 20 m/s vertically upward, then the distance travelled by the particle in last second of its ascent 1 g 2 3 4
 Q29 A particle when thrown vertically upward with speed 50 m/s passes same height at t1 s and t2 s. If the value of t1 is 2 s. What will be the value of t2? 1 6 s 2 4 s 3 8 s 4 7 s
 Q30 A particle is moving along a straight line. Select the correct statement 1 a > 0 indicate that particle speed must be increasing 2 The zero velocity of the particle at any instant imply zero acceleration at that instant 3 a > 0 indicate that particle speed may be increasing 4 All of these
 Q31 A body moves along a curved path of a quarter circle. The ratio of magnitude of displacement to distance is 1 2 3 4
 Q32 A car starts from rest travelling with constant acceleration. If distance covered by it in 10th second of its journey is 19 m. What will be the acceleration of car? 1 4 m/s2 2 2 m/s2 3 3 m/s2 4 1 m/s2
 Q33 For the velocity (v) − time (t) graph as shown in figure, the correct statement is 1 The acceleration as t = 2 s is zero 2 The average acceleration from 1 s to 4 s is 4 m/s2 3 The average velocity for the first 4 s is zero 4 The instantaneous acceleration at t = 6 s is zero
 Q34 Velocity of particle starting from rest varies with position according to equation . What is the distance travelled by particle in t second from start? 1 2 3 4
 Q35 A particle is thrown vertically upward. It is known that distance travelled in 6th second and 7th second is same then the particle was thrown with 1 60 m/s 2 40 m/s 3 70 m/s 4 50 m/s
 Q36 If a particle velocity depends on time as v = t2 − 3t + 2, select the incorrect statement 1 Particle comes to rest twice 2 The acceleration of particle is zero at t = 1.5 s 3 Rate of change of acceleration is constant 4 Particle never comes to rest
 Q37 A particle moves along x-axis. At t = 0 its velocity is u. At time t, its displacement is s and velocity is v. If the acceleration a is constant, select the correct relationship 1 2 3 4 s = (v + u)t
 Q38 Which of the following graph ideally not possible? 1 2 3 4
 Q39 The acceleration-time graph for a body which was at rest at t = 0 is shown below The speed time graph for this motion is 1 2 3 4
 Q40 A particle moves along x-axis in such a way that its x-coordinate varies with time according to the equation x = 8 − 4t + 6t2. The distance covered by particle between t = 0 to is 1 Zero 2 3 8 m 4
 Q41 Acceleration of a particle is varying with t according to graph. If initially it was at rest; then find its velocity at t = 20 s. 1 40 m/s 2 50 m/s 3 90 m/s 4 180 m/s
 Q42 A car is travelling on a straight road. The maximum velocity the car can attain is 24 m/s. The maximum acceleration and deceleration it can attain are 1 m/s2 and 4 m/s2 respectively. The shortest distance the car can travel from rest to rest is 1 120 m 2 140 m 3 200 m 4 360 m
 Q43 The position of a particle along x-axis is given by x = 5t − t2. Then the time t at which it will momentarily come to rest is 1 0 2 2.5 s 3 1.25 s 4 2 s
 Q44 For a body moving along straight line, the variation of the (v) with position (x) is a parabola represented by Acceleration time graph is nearly 1 2 3 4
 Q45 A particle is moving along x-axis and its position (x) at time (t) is given by x = 6t2 − t3, where x is in metres and t is in seconds. Velocity of particle is maximum at time t = 1 2 s 2 4 s 3 3 s 4 1 s
 Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45

## CHEMISTRY

 Q46 Which of the following sets perfectly illustrates the law of reciprocal proportion? 1 N2H4, NO2, H2O 2 NCl3, N2O5, H2O 3 NO2, N2O3, N2O5 4 All of these
 Q47 Number of g atoms in 0.2 mole urea (NH2CONH2) 1 4 × 0.2 2 8 × 0.2 3 3 × 0.2 4 5 × 0.2
 Q48 Number of H+ ions present in 0.1 M and 100 ml H2SO4 is similar to the number of H+ ions produced by 1 0.1 M and 200 ml HCl 2 0.2 M and 300 ml HNO3 3 0.2 M and 100 ml H3PO4 4 Data insufficient
 Q49 Equivalent mass of CaCO3 1 100 2 50 3 25 4 12.5
 Q50 A solution of metal chloride containing 0.2 moles of it, undergoes complete precipitation with 500 ml of 0.8 M AgNO3 solution. The formula of metal chloride is 1 MCl 2 MCl2 3 MCl3 4 MCl4
 Q51 An element X exist in two isotopic form X21(76%) and X22 (24%). Average atomic mass of X 1 21.24 2 22.2 3 21.84 4 20.92
 Q52 In the reaction of H2 and O2 to form water, 2.5 g of H2 is left unreacted while 9 g of water is formed. Calculate the volume of H2 taken initially at NTP. 1 5.6 L 2 2.24 L 3 22.4 L 4 39.2 L
 Q53 Two flasks A and B having equal volumes containing laughing gas (N2O) and tear gas (CCl3NO2), under similar conditions, which flasks has more number of molecules? 1 A 2 B 3 Both have same number of molecules 4 Can't be predicted
 Q54 A 3 litres of gaseous mixture of ethane and butane on complete combustion at 25°C produced 10 litres of CO2. What was the initial compositions of ethane and butane in the gaseous mixture? 1 50%, 50% 2 66.66%, 33.33% 3 33.33%, 66.66% 4 60%, 40%
 Q55 The equivalent weight of a metal oxide that has 32% of oxygen is 1 34 2 16 3 17 4 25
 Q56 If V ml vapour of a substance at NTP have density equal to d g/ml, then the molecular mass of the substance would be 1 V × d × 22.4 2 d × 22.4 3 V × d × 22400 4 d × 22400
 Q57 500 ml of 2 N KOH solution completely neutralises 30 g of an acid having molecular weight equal to 60. What would be the basicity of the acid? 1 2 2 3 3 1 4 4
 Q58 At NTP 40 ml vapours are produced by 0.20 g of a volatile substance. The molecular mass of the substance would be (density of hydrogen = 0.000089 g/ml) 1 11.2 g 2 22.4 g 3 56.1 g 4 112.34 g
 Q59 Calculate the number of moles of hydrogen required to reduce boron trichloride into 10.8 g of boron. (Atomic weight of boron 10.8 g) 1 1 2 1.5 3 2 4 2.5
 Q60 A metal oxide of a metal (M) contains 40% oxygen. Calculate the molecular mass of its chloride if the specific heat of the metal is 0.266. 1 24 g 2 59.5 g 3 95 g 4 47.5 g
 Q61 Arrange 1 g each of H2SO4, HClO4, H3PO4 in the increasing order in which they have number of oxygen atoms? 1 H2SO4 < H3PO4 < HClO4 2 HClO4 < H2SO4 < H3PO4 3 HClO4 < H2SO4 = H3PO4 4 HClO4 = H2SO4 = H3PO4
 Q62 24 g C and 96 g O2 are allowed to react to form carbon monoxide. Which of the following would be correct? 1 The limiting reagent is carbon 2 The limiting reagent is O2 3 28 g of CO is formed 4 168 g of CO is formed
 Q63 75 ml of 4 M HNO3 is mixed with 25 ml of 3 M HNO3, the molarity of resulting mixture would be 1 1.25 M 2 2.25 M 3 3.75 M 4 3.50 M
 Q64 Molarity of solution obtained by disolving 75 g KNO3 in 1L water is 1 0.75 M 2 1 M 3 7.5 M 4 0.25 M
 Q65 0.1 mol ammonium dichromate (NH4)2Cr2O7 contains 1 114.4 × 1023 atoms 2 84.332 × 1023 3 11.44 × 1023 atoms 4 6.02 × 1022 atoms
 Q66 The number of waves made by Bohr electron in an orbit for which the minimum value of magnetic quantum number is −2? 1 3 2 2 3 4 4 1
 Q67 2 nodal planes are present in 1 pz orbital 2 s orbital 3 orbital 4
 Q68 Orbital angular momentum of 3d electron is 1 2 3 4
 Q69 The atomic number of the element having maximum number of unpaired electrons is 1 25 2 24 3 21 4 29
 Q70 Which of the following statement is incorrect? 1 Energy is emitted in the transition of electrons from 6s to 4f in H atom 2 Energy is consumed for the transition of electrons from 6s to 4f for Li atom 3 Energy is consumed for the transition of electrons from 6s to 4f in He+ ion 4 All are correct
 Q71 Number of spectral lines emitted if the 12.09 eV energy is supplied to H-atom, would be 1 0 2 2 3 3 4 1
 Q72 If the shortest wavelength of Lyman series of H atom is x, then the wavelength of 1st line of Balmer series of H atom will be 1 2 3 4
 Q73 Size of electrons density is represented by which quantum number? 1 Principal 2 Azimuthal 3 Magnetic 4 Spin
 Q74 The most probable radius (in pm) for finding the electron in first orbit of Li2+ is 1 52.9 2 158.7 3 26.5 4 17.63
 Q75 Separation energy 1st of H is 1 Less than ionization energy of H 2 More than ionization energy of H 3 Less than separation energy 2nd for H 4 Equal to ionization energy
 Q76 The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons ejected from a metal is 4 × 10−19 J, when it is irradiated with radiation of frequency twice the threshold frequency of the metal. The threshold wavelength of the metal would be 1 600 nm 2 400 nm 3 500 nm 4 300 nm
 Q77 What would be the energy of emitted radiation if the electron falls from n = 3 to n = 2 in hydrogen atom? 1 10.2 eV 2 12.09 eV 3 1.9 eV 4 0.65 eV
 Q78 The third ionization enthalpy of lithium would be 1 40.8 eV 2 13.6 eV 3 122.4 eV 4 27.2 eV
 Q79 The ratio of specific charge of an electrons to that of a proton is 1 1 : 1837 2 1837 : 1 3 1 : 1 4 2 : 1
 Q80 Which of the following is incorrect if the frequency of incident radiation is doubled keeping its intensity same in a photoelectric effect? 1 Kinetic energy of photoelectrons increases 2 de Broglie wavelength of photoelectrons decreases 3 No. of ejecting photoelectrons remains same 4 All are correct
 Q81 Uncertainty in the position of electron moving with velocity 300 m/s accurate upto 0.001% will be 1 19 × 10−2 m 2 5.76 × 10−2 m 3 1.92 × 10−2 m 4 3.84 × 10−2 m
 Q82 The set of quantum numbers correspond to maximum energy is 1 n = 4, l = 2, m = 1, s = 2 n = 3, l = 2, m = 2, s = 3 n = 3, l = 1, m = 0, s = 4 n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s =
 Q83 Which of the following would have maximum para magnetism? 1 6s1 2 4f13 3 3d10 4 4d5
 Q84 Which of the following orbital has maximum energy for Li2+ ion? 1 6s 2 4f 3 4d 4 5d
 Q85 Total number of nodes present in the 3s orbital 1 1 2 2 3 0 4 3
 Q86 Scintillation and diffraction effect proves respectively 1 Wave nature and particle nature of electrons 2 Particle and wave nature of electrons 3 Both (1) & (2) 4 Particle nature
 Q87 The orbital diagram in which the Aufbau principle is violated is 1 2 3 4
 Q88 The electronic configuration of element of atomic number 24 is 1 1s22s22p 63s23p6 3d54s1 2 1s22s22p 63s23p63 d6 3 1s22s22p 63s13p33 d10 4 1s22s22p 63s23p63 d44s2
 Q89 Normality of 0.1 M solution of H3BO3 would be 1 0.1 N 2 0.3 N 3 0.2 N 4 0.6 N
 Q90 Which would be most concentrated? 1 0.1 M solution of H2SO4 2 0.1 N solution of H2SO4 3 0.1 m solution of H2SO4 4 All are equally concentrated
 Questions 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

## BIOLOGY

 Q91 Which of the following plant is not a species of genus Solanum? 1 Potato 2 Petunia 3 Brinjal 4 Makoi
 Q92 Select the incorrect match w.r.t. wheat 1 Class − Angiospermae 2 Genus − Triticum 3 Order − Poales 4 Family − Poaceae
 Q93 Which of the following is correct w.r.t. basidiomycetes? 1 The sex organs are multicellular and diploid 2 Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation is common 3 The basidiospores are endogenously produced in the basidium 4 The basidia are arranged in trama of basidiocarp
 Q94 Reproduction is a characteristic of living organisms, but it cannot be regarded as defining property because 1 Lower organisms do not reproduce under stressful environmental conditions 2 All living beings do not have the capacity to reproduce 3 For unicellular organisms growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive phenomena 4 Asexual reproduction is monoparental
Q95 Which of the following is the wrong pairing for the disease and its causal organism?
 (a) Late blight of potato Alternaria solani (b) Loose smut of wheat Ustilago nuda (c) White rust of mustard Albugo candida (d) Black rust of wheat Puccinia graminis

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
 Q96 Which of the following is a symbiotic nitrogen fixer in the non-leguminous plants? 1 Glomus 2 Azolla 3 Frankia 4 Clostridium
 Q97 Citrus canker is caused by 1 Bacillus 2 Pseudomonas 3 Xanthomonas 4 Streptococcus
 Q98 Diatoms are characterised by 1 Absence of photosynthetic pigments 2 Absence of gametic meiosis 3 Presence of indestructible cell wall 4 More than one option is correct
 Q99 Consider the following statements (A-C) w.r.t. heterocysts and select the right choice (A) They lack PS II. (B) Nitrogen fixing thin walled structure. (C) Under special conditions, they germinate to form new filaments 1 Only (C) is incorrect 2 (A) & (C) are correct 3 (A) & (B) are incorrect 4 (A), (B) & (C) are correct
 Q100 Which of the following form the basis of modern taxonomic studies? 1 Development process 2 Ecological information of organisms 3 External and internal structure 4 More than one option is correct
 Q101 The bacterial structure is and they are in behaviour. 1 A − Simple B − Simple 2 A − Complex B − Simple 3 A − Simple B − Complex 4 A − Complex B − Complex
 Q102 Select the correct statement w.r.t. Lichens 1 Phycobionts prepare food for fungi 2 The fungal components belong to class phycomycetes always 3 They are good indicators of polluted water 4 The algal components belong to cyanobacteria only
 Q103 Read the following statements w.r.t. Mycoplasma and select the right choice A. They may cause diseases in animals and plants. B. They lack cell wall and dsDNA. C. They are the smallest living cells known. D. They can survive without oxygen. 1 Only B is incorrect 2 A & C are incorrect 3 C & D are incorrect 4 B & C are correct
 Q104 Which of the following contains actual account of habitat and provides the index to the plant species of particular area? 1 Key 2 Manual 3 Monograph 4 Flora
 Q105 How many organisms in the list given below can fix nitrogen? Nostoc, Nitrosomonas, Rhizobium, Nitrobacter 1 One 2 Three 3 Two 4 Four
 Q106 In the five kingdom classification, Paramoecium and Amoeba have been included in 1 Monera 2 Plantae 3 Protista 4 Algae
 Q107 Agaricus, Ustilago and Puccinia all the three 1 Lack perfect stage 2 Bear ascospores 3 Are coprophilous 4 Produce basidiospores
 Q108 Membrane bound organelles are absent in 1 Phytophthora 2 Gonyaulax 3 Physarum 4 Rhizobium
 Q109 Select the two correct statements out of the four (a-d) given below about taxonomic key a. Separate keys are required for each taxonomic category. b. Each statement of couplet is called lead. c. Keys are non-analytical in nature. d. It is taxonomic aid used for identification of plants only. The correct statements are 1 a & c 2 a & b 3 b & d 4 c & d
Q110 Match the following (column I with column II)
 Column I Column II a. Chief producers in oceans (i) Gonyaulax b. Red tides (ii) Euglena c. Mixotrophs (iii) Diatoms d. Plasmodium (iv) Slime moulds

a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
 Q111 The most obvious and technically complicated feature of all living organisms is their ability to 1 Grow 2 Sense their surroundings 3 Reproduce 4 Control cellular metabolism
 Q112 National Botanical Research Institute is located at 1 Howrah 2 Lucknow 3 New Delhi 4 Dehradun
 Q113 Which of the following is not caused by fungi? 1 Orange rots 2 Downy mildew 3 Ergot in rye 4 Red rust in tea
 Q114 Mark the correct option (w.r.t. Viroids) 1 Larger than viruses 2 Cause black wart of potato 3 Lack protein coat 4 Both (2) & (3)
 Q115 Protistans having stiff cellulosic plates in their cell wall are 1 Desmids 2 Diatoms 3 Euglenoids 4 Dinoflagellates
 Q116 Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria play a great role in recycling nutrients like 1 Iron, calcium 2 Sulphur, iron 3 Phosphorus, nitrogen 4 More than one option is correct
 Q117 Consider the following statements w.r.t. zoological parks and select the right choice a. All animals in zoo are provided the conditions dissimilar to their natural habitats. b. Only zoologists can visit these parks. c. Children love visiting these parks. 1 a & b are correct 2 Only c is correct 3 b & c are correct 4 Only b is correct
 Q118 Select the odd one w.r.t. sexual spores in fungi 1 Oospores 2 Basidiospores 3 Ascospores 4 Sporangiospores
 Q119 Which of the following is a feature of Archaebacteria? 1 They live in some of the most harsh habitats 2 Also known as living fossil 3 Peptidoglycan nature of the cell wall 4 More than one option is correct
 Q120 Select the incorrect match w.r.t. cell wall composition 1 Diatoms − Cellulose, silica 2 Neurospora − Chitin 3 Rhizobium − Hopanoids, mycolic acid 4 Gonyaulax − Cellulose, pectin
 Q121 Which of the following process is absent during sexual cycle in Aspergillus? 1 Fission 2 Karyogamy 3 Meiosis 4 Plasmogamy
 Q122 Select the two correct statements out of the four (a-d) given below about fungi a. They are cosmopolitan. b. They prefer to grow in cold and humid places. c. Some multicellular forms are used to make bread and bear. d. They are heterotrophic. The correct statements are 1 b & c 2 a & d 3 a & b 4 b & d
 Q123 Consider the given diagram and select the right choice 1 A − Conidia, B − Sterigmata D − Rami C − Metulae E − Conidiophore 2 A − Conidia, D − Rami C − Sterigmata B − Metulae E − Conidiophore 3 A − Conidia, B − Rami C − Metulae E − Conidiophore D − Sterigmata 4 A − Conidia B − Metulae C − Conidiophore D − Rami E − Sterigmata
 Q124 Most of the bacteria are 1 Parasites 2 Heterotrophs 3 Chemoautotrophs 4 Photoautotrophs
Q125 Select the incorrect match
 Taxa Category (a) Bryophytes Division (b) Dicots Order (c) Animals Kingdom (d) Insects Class

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
 Q126 Which of the following feature is correct w.r.t. bacterial reproduction? 1 They reproduce by fission 2 They produce spores during favourable condition 3 They can reproduce by a sort of sexual reproduction by adopting advance type of DNA transfer 4 More than one option is correct
 Q127 Which of the following did not find place in the five kingdom classification of Whittaker? 1 Lichens 2 Viruses 3 Viroids 4 More than one option is correct
 Q128 Taxonomic aid which serves as quick referral systems in taxonomic studies is 1 Zoological park 2 Herbarium 3 Botanical garden 4 Flora
 Q129 Which of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses? 1 Mode of nutrition 2 Multiplication by fission 3 Multiplication by fragmentation 4 Multiplication by budding
 Q130 In the members of deuteromycetes 1 The mycelium is aseptate and branched 2 Asexual spores are conidia 3 Sexual spores are ascospores 4 The mycelium is coenocytic
 Q131 Select the incorrect match w.r.t. genetic material 1 Herpes viruses − ssDNA 2 λ-Bacteriophages − dsDNA 3 T.M.V. − ssRNA 4 Small pox − dsDNA
 Q132 Select the odd one w.r.t. deuteromycetes 1 Trichoderma 2 Bracket fungi 3 Colletotrichum 4 Alternaria
 Q133 Which of the following statements for mycorrhiza is correct? 1 It is associated with the roots of all plants 2 It is symbiotic association of fungi with the roots of higher plants like orchids 3 Fungi provide food and nitrogenous compounds to the plant 4 It protects the lower plants from number of insects
 Q134 In slime mould, the spores are dispersed by 1 Water currents 2 Aphids 3 Air currents 4 Nematodes
Q135 Select the correct match w.r.t. (characteristics of five kingdom)
 Cell wall Mode of nutrition (a) Fungi Absent Heterotrophic (b) Monera Non-cellulosic Heterotrophic and autotrophic (c) Plantae Absent Autotrophic (d) Protista Always absent Autotrophic and heterotrophic

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
 Q136 When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves, it is called 1 Asymmetrical 2 Bilateral symmetry 3 Radial symmetry 4 All of these
 Q137 Which of the following is the diagrammatic sectional view of pseudocoelomate? 1 2 3 4
 Q138 Metamerism is the condition in which body is externally and internally divided into segments with a serial repetition of at least some organs. It is found in 1 Earthworm 2 Tapeworm 3 Hydra 4 Liver fluke
 Q139 In annelids and echinoderms which of the following is not present even during the embryonic development? 1 Bilateral symmetry 2 Triploblastic condition 3 Notochord 4 Coelom
 Q140 Water canal system in sponges, helps in 1 Food gathering 2 Respiratory exchange 3 Removal of waste 4 All of these
 Q141 In sponges spongocoel is lined by 1 Podocytes 2 Amoebocytes 3 Spicules 4 Collar cells
 Q142 Euspongia is commonly known as 1 Fresh water sponge 2 Brain coral 3 Bath sponge 4 Sea pen
 Q143 Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. cnidoblasts of coelenterata 1 Anchorage 2 Defense 3 Transfer of gametes 4 Capture of prey
 Q144 Skeleton of corals is made up of 1 Scleroprotein 2 Cuticle 3 Elastic pellicle 4 Calcium carbonate
 Q145 Metagenesis is found in 1 Hydra 2 Adamsia 3 Obelia 4 Aurelia
 Q146 Coelenterates have a central gastrovascular cavity with a single opening mouth on_______ . 1 Osculum 2 Hypostome 3 Anus 4 Cytopyge
 Q147 Find out the wrong marking/s in the diagrammatic view of cnidoblast 1 a, c, d 2 b, c 3 b, c, d 4 c, d
 Q148 Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of ctenophores? 1 Bioluminescence 2 Ciliated comb plates 3 Both marine and fresh water forms 4 Only sexual reproduction is present
 Q149 Spot the odd one out 1 Pleurobrachia 2 Heliopora 3 Cestum 4 Beroe
 Q150 Cydippid is the larva of 1 Ctenoplana 2 Corallium 3 Hydra 4 Fungia
 Q151 Platyhelminthes are commonly called as 1 Acorn worm 2 Flat worm 3 Ring worm 4 Round worm
 Q152 In which class of platyhelminthes body has pseudometameric segmentation and is without alimentary canal? 1 Trematoda 2 Cestoda 3 Turbellaria 4 Nematoda
 Q153 Gynaecophoric canal is present in 1 Male Schistosoma 2 Female Schistosoma 3 Male Ascaris 4 Male Fasciola
 Q154 Which of the following echinoderm respires through genital bursae and is devoid of anus and ambulacral grooves? 1 Ophiothrix 2 Echinus 3 Asterias 4 Antedon
 Q155 In earthworm which of the following structure will help in osmoregulation and excretion? 1 Renette cell 2 Nephridia 3 Flame cell 4 Contractile vacuole
 Q156 Which of the following platyhelminthes has the following characters? a. Tri-forked intestine. b. High regeneration capacity. c. Free living 1 Dugesia 2 Clonorchis 3 Fasciola 4 Taenia
Q157 Match the following diagrams with their general characters
 Column I Column II a. (i) Polyp stage dominant b. (ii) Absorbs nutrients from the host directly through their body surface c. (iii) Acetabulum (ventral sucker) present d. (iv) Umbrella shaped and free swimming

a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)

a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
 Q158 Which larval stage is found in Ascaris? 1 Sporocyst 2 Cercaria 3 Metacercaria 4 Rhabditiform larva
 Q159 In tapeworm the gravid proglottids at the posterior end of the strobila detach in groups of 4 or 5 and pass out with the faeces of the host. This phenomenon is known as 1 Moulting 2 Sloughing 3 Apolysis 4 Ecdysis
 Q160 Denticulate lips are the characteristic of 1 Ascaris 2 Physalia 3 Velella 4 Planaria
 Q161 Middle layer of the egg of Ascaris is made up of 1 Chitin 2 Protein 3 Esterified glycosides 4 Calcium carbonate
 Q162 Ancylostoma is commonly known as 1 Roundworm 2 Ringworm 3 Hookworm 4 Earthworm
 Q163 Which stage of Ascaris larva is infected to human? 1 Second stage juvenile 2 Rhabditiform larva-I 3 Mammillated egg 4 First stage juvenile
 Q164 Intermediate host of filarial worm is 1 Cyclops 2 Tabanus fly 3 Mango fly 4 Culex mosquito
 Q165 Which of the following annelid is aquatic and dioecious? 1 Hirudinaria 2 Nereis 3 Tubifex 4 Pheretima
 Q166 Leeches are studied under phylum annelida. Which of the following character is not correct for leeches? a. Sanguivorous b. Botryoidal tissue present in the coelom c. Temporary clitellum present d. Parapodia help in swimming 1 a only 2 a & c only 3 a, b & c 4 Only d
 Q167 Chloragogen cells in earthworm help in 1 Respiration 2 Circulation 3 Excretion 4 Locomotion
 Q168 In earthworm the wall of cocoon is secreted by 1 Parapodia 2 Clitellum 3 Suckers 4 Anal cirri
 Q169 Aphrodite is commonly known as 1 Lug worm 2 Paddle worm 3 Sand worm 4 Sea mouse
 Q170 Which of the following is the connecting link between mollusca and annelida? 1 Chiton 2 Dentatium 3 Neopilina 4 Sepia
 Q171 Which larval stage of Unio is an ectoparasite on fishes? 1 Trochophore 2 Veliger 3 Glochidium 4 Redia
 Q172 In which cephalopod mollusc shell is external and it is without ink glands? 1 Nautilus 2 Architeuthis 3 Octopus 4 Loligo
 Q173 Which of the following arthropod has two pairs antennae and stalked compound eyes? 1 2 3 4
 Q174 Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. phylum Arthropoda 1 Largest phylum of Animalia kingdom 2 They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and acoelomate animals 3 Statocysts or balance organs are present in aquatic forms 4 Excretion takes place through malpighian tubules
 Q175 Hemimetabolous development is seen in 1 Bed bug 2 Silver fish 3 Dragon flies 4 House flies
 Q176 In echinoderms water vascular system helps in 1 Locomotion 2 Capture and transport of food 3 Respiration 4 All of these
 Q177 In which animal body is cylindrical and differentiated into proboscis, collar and long trunk? 1 Balanoglossus 2 Cucumaria 3 Ophiura 4 Echinus
Q178 Match the parasites in column I with their host and diseases mentioned in column II
 Column I Column II a. Babesia (i) Malaria in humans b. Eimeria (ii) Haemoglobinuric fever/tick fever in cattles c. Plasmodium (iii) Sleeping sickness in humans d. Trypanosoma (iv) Coccidiosis in chicken

a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)

a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
 Q179 Which of the following disease is not caused by Leishmania? 1 Espundia 2 Nagana 3 Oriental sores 4 Kala-azar
 Q180 Which of the following structure is not related with Paramecium? 1 Locomotion by flagella 2 Two contractile vacuoles 3 Dimorphic nuclei 4 Cytopyge / Cytoproct
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